Expert answer:NEED SOMEONE WHO FULLY KNOWS HUMAN BIOLOGY. THIS WILL BE EASY FOR SOMEONE WHO KNOWS HUMAN BIOLOGY.
Below is attached a total of 250 multiple choice biology practice questions that I need answered 100% correctly. Feel free to find the answers online if you do not know it. They are sectioned off into 5 tests, 50 questions each. When you find the answer to each question, please HIGHLIGHT THE CORRECT CHOICE FOR EACH QUESTION IN GREEN ON THE WORD DOCUMENT and send the NEW WORD DOCUMENT with all the answers HIGHLIGHTED, back to me. Pretty much, each question should have an answer that is HIGHLIGHTED IN GREEN when you are done with this assignment. TWO files added, 1 is the bio practice questions and the other one is ONLY RELEVANT for when you get to the PRACTICE 5 for questions 14-17, you just need the second file as a reference for those 4 questions on PRACTICE 5 ONLY.
test_5_questions_14_17.jpg

bio_practice_questions_word.docx

Unformatted Attachment Preview

Biology Practice Questions
Practice 1:
1. The basic unit of life is the ___.
A. Atom
B. Molecule
C. Organelle
D. Cell
E. Organism
2. The most basic level of organization is the ___.
A. Atom
B. Molecule
C. Compound
D. Cell
E. Organ
3. A systematic way of obtaining knowledge about the natural world is ____.
A. Science
B. An hypothesis
C. An experiment
D. The variable
E. A prediction
4. The first step of the scientific method is to ____.
A. Perform an experiment
B. Make a prediction
C. Test a prediction
D. Analyze data
E. Observation of a natural event
5. The statement “animals that live in the desert will produce concentrated urine” is ___.
A. An opinion
B. A hypothesis
C. Data
D. A variable
E. A control group
6. Which of these is designed by researchers to test only a single prediction of a hypothesis
at a time?
A. Controlled experiment
B. Experimental Variable
C. Control Group
D. Controlled variable
E. Experimental Constant
7. The control in an experiment ____.
A. Makes the experiment invalid
B. Is an additional replicate for statistical purposes
C. Reduces experimental errors
D. Minimizes experimental inaccuracy
E. Allows a standard of comparison for the experimental group
8. Science is based on ___.
A. Faith
B. Evidence
C. Authority
D. Consensus
E. Opinions
9. In science, the word “theory” ____.
A. Is an explanation that has not been published
B. Has essentially the same meaning as a prediction
C. Is based mostly on opinions
D. Signifies that a hypothesis has been tested and proven over a period of time
E. Means that a scientist has a hunch something is true
10. After many years of testing, an hypothesis becomes accepted as a ____.
A. Fact
B. Prediction
C. Theory
D. Conclusion
E. Law
11. A pure substance that cannot be broken down into another substance is known as a(n)
___.
A. Proton
B. Electron
C. Compound
D. Element
E. Isotope
12. The atomic number denotes the number of ___ in an atom of a particular element.
A. Electrons
B. Neutrons
C. Energy Levels
D. Protons
E. Isotopes
13. Covalent bonds ___.
A. Occur when ions of opposite charge are attracted to each other
B. Occur during oxidation reactions
C. Are the weak link between two water molecules
D. Are extremely strong and stable
E. Form bonds that hold Na and Cl together in NaCl (table salt)
14. Which type of bond is responsible for the linking together of two water molecules?
A. Hydrogen
B. Ionic
C. Polar Covalent
D. Non-polar Covalent
E. Isotropic
15. An atom carries no charge because it has asa many electrons as ___.
A. Protons
B. Neutrons
C. Orbitals
D. Neutrons
E. Shells
16. How do hydrophilic molecules interact with water?
A. They are attracted to water
B. They are absorbed by water
C. They are repelled by water
D. They absorb heat from water
E. They transfer heat to water
17. A dissolved substance in water is a(n) ____.
A. Solvent
B. Solute
C. Antioxidant
D. Free radical
E. Acid
18. A solution with a pH of 7.4 ____
A. Is considered an acid
B. Has more H+ than OHC. Has equal numbers of H+ and OHD. Has a pH similar to ammonia
E. Is similar in acidity to normal body fluids
19. A system that compensates for pH fluctuations by donating or accepting H+ is known
as a(n) ____.
A. Acid
B. Base
C. Salt
D. Buffer
E. Antioxidant
20. The structural building blocks for proteins are ____.
A. Enzymes
B. Amino acids
C. Cholesterol
D. Polysaccharides
E. Vitamins
21. Every living organism must have ____.
A. At least one cell
B. A nucleus
C. A cell wall
D. Mitochondria
E. Oxygen
22. A prokaryotic cell has all of the following EXCEPT ____.
A. A plasma membrane
B. DNA
C. Cytoplasm
D. A nucleus inside a membrane
E. Ribosomes
23. The term eukaryotic means ____.
A. Having many nuclei
B. Before the nucleus
C. Having a true nucleus
D. Not having a nucleus
E. Not having DNA
24. What organelle is the sit of ATP production?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Peroxisomes
D. Lysosomes
E. Golgi body
25. What portion of the cell contains mitochondria and microfilaments?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Cytoskeleton
D. Smooth ER
E. Rough ER
26. What component of the cell is the site of polypeptide (protein) assembly?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Vesicles
D. Ribosome
E. Lysosome
27. In what portion of a eukaryotic cell is the majority of DNA isolated?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Vesicles
D. Cytoplasm
E. Lysosome
28. Which particle is able to freely cross the plasma membrane?
A. Na+
B. ClC. Oxygen
D. Glucose
E. Amino Acids
29. DNA and its attached proteins are known as ____.
A. Nucleoli
B. The nuclear envelope
C. Chromatin
D. Nucleotides
E. Genes
30. A nuclear envelope has four of the following characteristics, Which is the exception?
A. A single lipid bilayer
B. Continuous with endoplasmic reticulum
C. Possesses pores
D. Controls passage of substances into and out of nucleus
E. Separates DNA from cytoplasm
31. The major difference between the smooth and rough ER is that ____.
A. Smooth ER is isolated to the nucleus
B. Vesicles are found only in the smooth ER
C. Rough ER contains ribosomes
D. Smooth ER is the site of polypeptide synthesis
E. Rough ER is the site of lipid synthesis
32. Which tissue type below consists of several layers of cells?
A. Simple squamous
B. Simple cubektal
C. Simple Columnar
D. Stratified squamous
E. Pseudostretified
33. Scientists believe that mitochondria may have evolved from bacteria because ____.
A. They both have cristae membranes
B. Mitochondria have their own DNA
C. Their shapes and sizes are exactly the same
D. Both are surrounded by a cell wall
E. Both can live independently
34. The diffusion of water across a membrane is known as ____.
A. Osmosis
B. Active transport
C. Facilitated Diffusion
D. Movement through a channel
E. Carrier mediated transport
35. The measure of concentration of solutes in a solution is ____.
A. Tonicity
B. Osmosis
C. Hydrostatic pressure
D. Diffusion
E. Facilitated diffusion
36. A cell moves sodium ions against its concentration gradient. This is an example of ____
A. Active transport
B. Osmosis
C. Diffusion
D. Facilitated Diffusion
e. Diffusion through a channel
37. All enzymes are which type of organic molecule?
A. Lipids
B. Minerals
C. Carbohydrates
D. Vitamins
E. Proteins
38. What molecule is the body’s main energy source?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Glucose
D. Fats
E. Proteins
39. SKIP
40. Which of the following is NOT classified as a type of connective tissue?
A. Bone
B. Cartilage
C. Glands
D. Adipose
E. Blood
41. The heart is located in which body cavity?
A. Cranial
B. Thoracic
C. Spinal
D. Abdominal
E. Pelvic
42. The stomach and liver are located in which body cavity?
A. Cranial
B. Thoracic
C. Spinal
D. Abdominal
E. Pelvic
43. Which system maintains posture and body temperature?
A. Digestive
B. Circulatory
C. Nervous
D. Lymphatic
E. Muscular
44. The integument consists of all of the following EXCEPT ____.
A. Skin
B. Endocrine glands
C. Oil glands
D. Sweat glands
E. Nails
45. Bone tissue is a storage area for _____.
A. Magnesium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Calcium
E. Chloride
46. Each end of a long bone is called ____.
A. The diaphysis
B. The epiphysis
C. The shaft
D. Compact bone
E. Canaliculi
47. During the remodeling process, which cells break down the bone matrix?
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteocytes
C. Glial cells
D. Osteoclasts
E. Chondrocytes
48. The portion of the skeleton that includes bones of the limbs, shoulder and hips is
classified as the ____.
A. Axial skeleton
B. Cranial skeleton
C. Girdle skeleton
D. Appendicular skeleton
E. Vertical skeleton
49. In adults, most blood cells are formed in which type of bones?
A. Long leg bones
B. Long arm bones
C. Hips bones
D. Skull
E. Small bones of hand and foot
50. How many bones are in the fully formed adult human skeleton?
A. 271
B. 56
C. 150
D. 196
E. 206
Practice 2:
1. Smooth muscle is found in
A. The brain
B. The heart
C. Arms and Legs
D. The walls of hollow organs and tubes
2. Most of the body’s muscle tissue is
A. Smooth muscle
B. Cardiac muscle
C. Digestive muscle
D. Skelelate muscle
3. What quality do cardiac and skeletal muscles share?
A. Both are striated
B. Both are voluntary
C. Both are involuntary
D. Both are smooth
4. The human biceps and triceps muscles may be described best as working
A. Involuntary
B. Antagonistically
C. Synergistically
D. Independently
5. A strap of dense connective tissue that connected a muscle to bone is known as a(n)
A. Cartilage
B. Ligament
C. Tendon
D. Myofibril
6. The ability to extend the leg is the result of
A. Contraction of muscles
B. Contraction of ligaments and tendons
C. Lengthening of muscles
D. Relaxation of muscle
7. The human body contains approximately _____ muscles
A. 600
B. 482
C. 206
D. 273
8. What term describes the sudden involuntary contraction of a muscle
A. Spasm
B. Twitch
C. Tetanus
D. Treppe
9. Thin filaments are composed of
A. Calcium
B. Myosin
C. Titin
D. Actin
10. A contractile unit of muscle is known as a
A. Muscle cell
B. Sarcomere
C. Fascicle
D. Myofilament
11. Of the options below, which is the largest vessel?
A. Venule
B. Capillary
C. Artery
D. Arteriole
12. Blood in arteries
A. Always travels away from the heart
B. Travels from the lungs
C. Always towards the heart
D. Is always oxygen rich
13. Blood moves most slowly through
A. Arterioles
B. Arteries
C. Veins
D. Capillaries
14. The mitral valves is located between
A. The left and right atria
B. The right ventricle and left atrium
C. The left atrium and left ventricle
D. The left and right ventricles
15. The receiving zone of a vertebrate heart is
A. A capillary bed
B. The aorta
C. A valve
D. An atrium
16. During systole
A. Oxygen rich blood is pumped to the lungs
B. The heart muscle tissues relax
C. The heart muscle tissues contract
D. Oxygen poor blood is pumped to the body
17. The thick wall that separates the left and right hearts is known as the
A. Septum
B. Smooth muscle
C. Pericardium
D. Atrium
18. Pulmonary circulation
A. Involves the liver
B. Can be shut off during fasting
C. Involves the lungs
D. Involves the kidneys
19. In its travel through the human body, blood usually drains from the capillaries into
A. Arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Veins
D. Venules
20. The aorta is connected to which heart chamber
A. Right ventricle
B. Left atrium
C. Right atrium
D. Left ventricle
21. Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange between the circulatory system and tissues of
the body usually involves which blood vessels.
A. Arteries
B. Aorta
C. Capillaries
D. Venules
22. Which cell is not involved with the immune system
A. Macrophage
B. Neutrophil
C. Erythrocyte
D. Eosinophil
23. Megakaryocytes fragment to produce
A. Erythrocytes
B. Capillaries
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
24. Red blood cells primarily contains which protein
A. Hemoglobin
B. Mucus
C. Myosin
D. Actin
25. If a test tube of whole blood is subjected to centrifugation, the cells will be packed
into the bottom of the tube, and the fluid above it will be called
A. Plasma
B. Serum
C. Water
D. Lymph
26. Plasma is primarily
A. Protein
B. Hormones
C. Fats
D. Water
27. Most of the oxygen in the blood is transported by
A. Serum
B. White blood cells
C. Plasma
D. Hemoglobin
28. Hemoglobin is able to bind gas molecules due to which element
A. Zinc
B. Iron
C. Arsenic
D. Copper
29. Which blood type is the universal donor?
A. AB+
B. A+
C. AD. O30. Which blood type is the universal acceptor?
A. AB+
B. A+
C. OD. B31. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder in which the blood
A. Lacks white blood cells
B. Lacks red blood cells
C. Lacks clotting factors
D. Lacks plasma
32. Any substance that causes disease is classified as a
A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Vector
D. Pathogen
33. Any substance that is capable of generating an antibody response is known as a(n)
A. Prion
B. Antigen
C. Virus
D. Protein
34. The first barrier to invasion is
A. White blood cells
B. Development of memory
C. Antibody production
D. Intact skin and body linings
35. The type of white blood cells that target worms (helminths) and fungi is known as a(n)
A. Macrophage
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophil
D. Eosinophil
36. Immunity that develops over time due to exposure is termed
A. Adaptive
B. Learned
C. Coordinated
D. Innate
37. Which chemical released by white blood cells causes blood vessels to dilate and
become leaky
A. Complement
B. Antibodies
C. Cytokines
D. Histamine
38. Proteins that can assemble into a membrane attack complex (MAC) and poke holes in
the membrane of bacteria are known as
A. Histamine
B. Cytokines
C. Antibodies
D. Complement
39. Antibodies are generated primarily by which cell type
A. Killer T cells
B. Erythrocytes
C. Helper T cells
D. B Cells (plasma cells)
40. The markers that identify an individuals cells are referred to by the letters
A. THC
B. PCR
C. HTC
D. MHC
41. HIV is effectively transmitted by
A. Water
B. Body fluids
C. Food
D. Air
42. Which of the following is not a function of the naval cavities
A. Warm the air
B. Purify air
C. Humanity air
D. Oxygenize the air
43. The gap between the vocal cords that is the opening to the larynx is known as the
A. Epiglottis
B. Trachea
C. Glottis
D. Pharynx
44. Which structure provides a huge surface area for diffusion of gases
A. The lungs
B. Alveoli
C. The trachea
D. The Bronchi
45. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged due to the process of
A. Active transport
B. Diffusion
C. Brownian movemnt
D. Osmosis
46. The movement of red blood cells through the vasculature is what phase of respiration
A. Internal respiration
B. Pulmonary ventilaion
C. External respiration
D. Gas transport
47. The amount of air that moves into and out of the lungs in each normal breath is
known as
A Tidal volume
B. Pleural volume
C. Vital capacity
D. Reserve volume
48. Which chemical secreted in the alveoli reduces surface tension and moistens tissue
A. Hemoglobin
B. Mucus
C. Histamine
D. Surfactant
49. 80-90% of lung cancers are linked to
A. Asbestos
B. Industrial waste
C. Preexisting genetic factors
D. Smoking
50. Which muscles are involved in normal breathing
A. Diaphragm and obliques
B. Intercostals and diaphragm
C. Pectoralis major and diaphragm
D. Obliques and intercostals
Practice 3:
1. Which type of molecule is NOT a macronutrient?
A. Vitamin
B. Carbohydrates
C. Fats
D. Proteins
2. How much energy is contained in a gram of fat?
A. 4 calories
B. 7 calories
C. 9 calories
3. Amino acids that are required for life but you are unable to synthesize are known as?
A. Essential Amino Acids
B. Vital Amines
C. Micronutrients
D. Proteins
4. Which of the following vitamins is fat soluble?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin B6
5. A hollow passageway in an organ such as seen in the alimentary canal (and blood
vasculature) is known as?
A. Cavity
B. Mucosa
C. Lumen
D Pore
6. Chisel shaped teeth used to cut food are known as?
A. Incisors
B. Canines
C. Molars
D. Premolars
7. Salivary Amylase, the major enzyme produced by your salivary glands, acts on which
type of molecule?
A. Fats
B. Proteins
C. Starches
D. Cellulose
8. Which of the following is NOT a function of the stomach?
A. Mixes and stores food
B. Control passage of food into the small intestine
C. Chemical digestion of ingested food
D. Absorption of protein and fats
9. Villi function to
A. Increase the surface area of the small intestine
B. Propel food throughout the small intestine
C. Secrete acid and pepsin
D. Produce digestive enzymes
10. Bile is produced by
A. Gall bladder
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Small intestine
11. The ring of muscle that guards the exit of chyme from the stomach to the duodenum is
known as
A. Cardiac (esophageal) sphincter
B. Ileocecal valve
C. Epiglottis
D. Pyloric sphincter
12. The major function of the large intestine is to
A. Absorb proteins
B. Absorb carbohydrates
C. Absorb fats
D. Absorb water
13. The gall bladder functions to
A. Produce bile
B. Produce pepsin
C. Store and secrete bile
D. Secrete bicarbonate
14. Heartburn is also known as
A. Polyps
B. H pylori
C. Cirrhosis
D. GERD
15. Chronice abuse of alcohol can lead to scarring of the liver known as
A. Polyps
B. H pylori
C. Cirrhosis
D. GERD
16. The process that propels the food down the esophagus into the stomach is known as
A. Glycolysis
B. Emulsion
C. Segmentation
D. Peristalsis
17. The pancreas secretes bicarbonate to
A. Neutralize the pH in the duodenum
B. Digest lipids
C. Digest carbohydrates
D. Promote water resorption
18. Approximately how much water is lost daily as a result of urination
A. 200mL
B. 900mL
C. 2600mL
D. 1500mL
19. Channels for urine to flow from the kidneys to the urinary bladder are known as
A. Urethras
B. Ureters
C. Nephrons
D. Renal ducts
20. The urethra is located
A. Between the urinary bladder and kidneys
B. Between the left and right kidneys
C. Between the urinary bladder and body surface
D. Between the kidneys and body surface
21. The functional unit of the kidney is known as a
A. Renal pelvis
B. Ureter
C. Medulla
D. Nephron
22. Which of the following is not a component of the nephron
A. Glomerulus
B. Renal pelvis
C. Loop of Henle
D. Collecting tubules
23. Approximately how much water is reabsorbed in the kidneys
A. 10%
B. 50%
C. 90%
D. 99%
24. The kidney is surrounded by a thin membrane known as the
A. Cortex
B. Capsule
C. Medulla
D. Renal Pelvis
25. Humans typically gain the least amount of water via
A. Metabolism
B. Ingestion of liquids
C. Ingestion of solids
D. Ingestion of liquids and solids both contribute an equal amount of water
26. During filtration, blood cells, platelets, proteins, and large solutions
A. Do not leave the blood stream
B. Are immediately reabsorbed within the capsule
C. Are reabsorbed in the loop of Henle
D. Are reabsorbed in the collecting tubules
27. Erythropoietin, produced by the kidneys, causes the body to
A. Increase urine production
B. Regulate blood pressure
C. Convert Vitamin D
D. Make red blood cells
28. A kidney disorder characterized by abundant cysts that destroy kidney tissue is known
as
A. Wilms tumor
B. PCKD
C. Syphilis
D. Diabetes
29. Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by
A. Insufficient removal of acid from the blood
B. Kidney disease
C. Severe diarrhea
D. Severe vomiting
30. The most toxic substances routinely found in the blood are metabolites of
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
C. Vitamins
D. Proteins
31. Of the following, which should be the least abundant in normal urine
A. Urea
B. Water
C. Uric acid
D. Glucose
32. The kidney is involved in synthesis of which vitamin?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
33. Water reabsorption into the capillaries is achieved principally via
A. Endocytosis
B. Diffusion
C. Phagocytosis
D. Countercurrent multiplication
34. Regarding the hormone ADH, which of the following is not true
A. Produces by the brain
B. Promotes water reabsorption
C. Inhibited by alcohol
D. Promotes urination
35. The blood vessel that delivers blood to the kidney is known as the
A. Hepatic artery
B. Subclavian artery
C. Phrenic artery
D. Renal artery
36. Chemicals used to signal between neurons are known as
A. Neurotransmitters
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Myelin
37. What is a major function of glia cells in the nervous system
A. Transmit signals from sensory receptors to nervous system
B. Transmit signals from CNS to motor neurons
C. Support and wrap neurons in myelin
D. Supply blood and oxygen neurons
38. The most highly developed brain region is known as
A. Forebrain
B. Midbrain
C. Hindbrain
D. Spinal cord
39. The three layers of tissue that covers the brain and spine are known as
A. Neurons
B. Meninges
C. Cerebral hemispheres
D. Beta Amyloid
40. The most common cell type of the nervous system (90% of cells) are known as
A. Neurons
B. Neuroglia
C. Dendrites
D. Axons
41. Neurons that integrate signals between sensory and motor neurons are known as
A. Interneurons
B. Neuroglia
C. Schwann Cells
D. Oligodendrocyte
42. Grey matter is different from white matter in that grey matter
A. Is myelinated
B. Makes up the majority of the surface of the spinal cord
C. Has confederate sympathies
D. Is not myelinated
43. The olfactory bulbs (involved in smell), are part of which brain region
A. Forebr …
Purchase answer to see full
attachment